I must retract a statement made earlier.
Earlier I commented that instances of sexual child abuse do not constitute porneia according to WTS policy if they do not involve use of genitalia. However, if we take the WTS' words at face value then they have stipulated that sexual abuse of a child is porneia regardless of whether genitalia is involved. What do I mean?
Page 93-94 of the ks91 textbook states:
"Por.neia" involves immoral use of the genitals of at least one human ( whether in a natural or a perverted way ), and there must have been another party to the immoralitya human of either sex or a beast; willing participation incurs guilt and requires judicial action. It is not a casual touching of the sex organs between persons but involves the manipulation of the genitals. (w83 6/1 pp. 23-6; w83 3/15 pp. 30-1)
It includes oral and anal sex or mutual masturbation between persons not married to each other, homosexuality, lesbianism, fornication, adultery, incest, and bestiality. (Lev. 20:10, 13, 15, 16; Rom. 1:24, 26, 27, 32; 1 Cor. 6:9, 10)
Also included are sexual abuse of children, including practices involving a catamite (a boy kept for purposes of sexual perversion). (Deut. 23:17, 18, Ref.: Bi., ftns.)
The last paragraph categorizes sexual abuse of a child as prima facia porneia. This means regardless of whether use of genitalia occurs, when sexual abuse is committed on the person of a child then it is porneia nevertheless. Looking back, I know of instances where the WTS has applied their policy in this way.
This means the WTS' legal team would have to explain why sexual abuse of a child is not porneia when their own written policy says it is, and therefore not subject to the stipulated statute of limitation. It would require a savvy lawyer to press this issue, and they would have to ascertain whether refuting WTS assertions of a statute of limitation is important to the case at hand.
What a tangled web the WTS weaves!
Edited by - Marvin Shilmer on 13 September 2002 15:24:40